July 16, 201114 yr How come the call is considered a failure if I use lethal force against the mugger? Considering the fact that he just committed a felony, is armed, and presumably dangerous, he now falls under the "fleeing felon" doctrine and lethal force is authorized to protect myself and the public. I don't think its fair to say that it is failure simply because it resulted in lethal force... what are we the ACLU now? :rolleyes:
July 16, 201114 yr I think it may be because its un-needed force unless your shot at first. I could be wrong though, but thats how I've started thinking of it.